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Aristotle on property and family
Pages 2 (502 words)
Aristotle has believed that the family and its property were the parts of the state and therefore, played an important role. He agreed that every single individual has the right for some privacy while should also be able to share the common goods. Aristotle uses the term 'households" instead of families to include everybody and everything: wife, husband, children, slaves, and property…
According to the theories of Socrates, there should be no private property in the ideal community. Aristotle had a different point of view on this issue. He supposed that women and children belong to some male individuals and therefore can also be referred to as property. It is possible to imagine what will happen if all citizens would have the right to use the wives and children of each other. Aristotle has limited the sharing of property to several cases which would bring the benefits to the state. For example, he explained when the soil can be common (Lear 214-215): (1) the soil can be common and the products from it can be used for common consumption; (2) the soil can be common only if it is cultivated in common and the products are divided among the individuals for the private purposes.
Aristotle has made one important point which makes it clear that common sharing of goods will not be beneficial for the state. When people share equally all of the benefits, those who labor much will always be dissatisfied with those who labor less but receive the same reward. As Aristotle has noted, it has been always very difficult for the men to have all human relations in common. ...
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