Discuss the difference between Aristotle and Kant - Essay Example

In philosophy classes, one is likely to learn about Aristotle’s system of propositional logic where the concepts of premises and conclusions are used as a structure of reasoning. Contrarily, Kant lived in the 18th Century in the years 1724 - 1804. Kant was a paradigmatic philosopher who played a central role in the structuring of modern philosophy. Unlike Aristotle who was active in medieval era, Kant emerged as a key figure in the European Enlightenment periods (Graham, 23). Conventionally, Kant is alleged to have laid the foundation of empiricism and eradicated any remaining traces of medieval reasoning in philosophy.

Each of the two philosophers discussed comprehensively on the concepts of moral propriety, commonly referred to as ethics. Aristotle asserts that there is an extricable connection between psychological and physiological nature in human beings. The consciousness of sensation perceived by the body in the material world serves the purpose of clothing the senses of thought and reasoning. In this context, Aristotle claimed that material knowledge perceived by the body influences immaterial thoughts, thus developing a scale for comparison between distinct objects and thoughts (Sherman, 127).

This interaction between psychology and physiology experienced by human beings gives rise to the opposing concepts of virtue and vice. In this case, practical experiences coupled with sensitive existence leads to distinct realization and subsequent differentiation of good from bad. Unlike animals, human beings are in an intrinsic pursuit of favorable experiences manifesting as universal happiness. According to Aristotle, actions and thoughts that lead to happiness are called virtues, while contrary actions and thoughts are vices.

According to Aristotle, the opposing concepts of virtue and vice serve as a scale for measuring extremes. Excess vice lies on one end while deficient vice lies on another end. In this case, virtue is a mean or